[SIPForum-discussion] via header

Nitin Kapoor nitinkapoorr at gmail.com
Mon Jan 11 04:04:47 UTC 2010


Not sure that we can use the port "0" in VIA header field or not. As far as
i know Port 0 is reserved, but is a permissible source port value if the
sending process does not expect messages in response.

But yes i also had the same problem just few days ago when my cisco 7960 was
able to make the calls but was not able to receive the calls through
ASTERISK. After analyzing the logs and traces i got to know that my UA was
not sending any port into the VIA header field, which is as below.

<INVITE sip:5126749296 at <sip%3A5126749296 at>SIP/2.0
*Via: SIP/2.0/UDP;branch=z9hG4bK2aca727e*
From: "5126749296" <sip:5126749296 at>;tag=as399036a5
To: <sip:2147649296 at <sip%3A2147649296 at>>
Contact: <sip:2022463521 at>
Call-ID: 38f0e703759fa812118353011dc04924 at
CSeq: 102 INVITE
User-Agent: Asterisk PBX
Date: Thu, 29 Jul 2004 19:10:57 GMT
Content-Type: application/sdp
Content-Length: 218
sippmh_parse_via: Invalid port number in Via[12:07:52]
sippmh_parse_via: Invalid port number in Via[12:07:52] Sendresponse: Error:
No Via Header present in Message! returned error.

At that time asterisk wasn't initializing the port to 5060.Then I had add
"port = 5060" to the top of my sip.conf file.

Nitin Kapoor

2010/1/8 Anthony Orlando <avorlando at yahoo.com>

> Is it valid for a via header to contain port=zero? such as x.x.x.x:0
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